Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 27.06.2025 07:37
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What is the best way to get clients to a call center?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.